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BIOS 100 - Summer, 2004 Name:
Exam II - 7 June, 2004
Michael Muller, Instructor TA:

This exam consists of 58 questions over 7 pages and a codon chart on page 8. Each question is worth two points apiece, so there is a bunch of extra credit. In fact, the first eight questions you miss are freebies. Eight! Can you believe it? Please check to see that all the pages are present before you begin. Use a #2 pencil and bubble in all answers. If you use pen, I will laugh at you! Your score will be posted on the UIC Blackboard site as soon as they are in. Good Luck!

Use the key below to answer questions 1 to 6 Chose the best answer.

I. Light-dependent reactions of Photosynthesis
II. Light-independent reactions of Photosynthesis
III. Glycolysis
IV. Conversion of Pyruvate to acetyl Co-A
V. Krebs Cycle
VI. Oxidative Phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)
VII. Alcohol Fermentation
VIII. Lactic Acid Fermentation

1. This/these reactions produce CO2
A. IV only     B. IV, V     C. IV, V, VI     D. IV, V, VII     E. IV, V, VII, VIII

2. This/these reactions produce H2O from oxygen
A. I only     B. I, III     C. VI only     D. I, VI     E. None of the above

3. This/these reactions utilize an electron transport chain
A. I only     B. I, II     C. VI only     D. I, VI    E. None of the above

4. This/these reactions produce ATP
A. I, II     B. III, V, VI     C. I, III, V, VI     D. I, III, V, VI, VII     E. I, III, V, VI, VII, VIII

5. This/these reactions produce either NADH or NADPH
A. I, II     B. I, III, V     C. I, III, IV, V     D. I, III, IV, V, VI     E. VII, VIII

6. This/these reactions convert NADH back to NAD+
A. VII only     B. VIII only     C. VII, VIII     D. VI, VII, VIII    E. I, VI, VII, VIII

7. On a hot, sunny day, which of the following areas of a plant would you expect the pH to be lowest?
A. The cytoplasm     B. The stroma     C. The thylakoid space    D. The matrix     E. The nucleus

8. Which of the following statements about cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation are FALSE?
A. Cyclic photophosphorylation produces ATP but no NADPH
B. Cyclic photophosphorylation utilizes both PSII (p680) and PSI (p700)
C. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation utilizes two electron transport chains
D. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, PSII (p680) replenishes its lost electron from water
E. All of the above statements about cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation are TRUE

9. Which of the following statements about C3 and C4 plants is FALSE?
A. A different form of Rubisco is present in C4 plants than in C3 plants
B. C3 plants typically experience more photorespiration than C4 plants
C. In C4 plants, carbon is transported to the bundle sheath cells and then released
D. C4 plants perform the Calvin Cycle
E. All of the above statements about C3 and C4 plants are TRUE

10. Where in the United States would you expect to find the greatest proportion of the plants to be C4 plants?
A. Washington State     B. Nebraska     C. Illinois     D. Ohio     E. Maine

11. In the Calvin Cycle, which of the following molecules is removed from the cycle to form glucose?
A. RUBP     B. CO2     C. PGA     D. PGAL     E. None of the above

12. Which of the following statements about Rubisco is FALSE?
A. Rubisco has more affinity for CO2 than for O2
B. Photorespiration is when Rubisco fixes an oxygen molecule to RuBP, forming a PGA (3-carbon molecule) and a phosphoglycolate (2-carbon molecule)
C. Rubisco is found in both C3 and C4 plants
D. Rubisco is the most common enzyme on the planet Earth
E. All of the above statements about Rubisco are TRUE

13. When do CAM plants open their stomates?
A. When water is plentiful     B. During the day when the sun is shining
C. At night     D. During the light-dependent reactions
E. None of the above

14. The illustration below is:
A. Simple leaves with pinnate venation
B. Simple leaves with palmate venation
C. Pinnately compound leaf with pinnate venation
D. Palmate compound leaf with pinnate venation
E. Pinnately compound leaf with palmate venation

15. Where does the bulk of the light harvesting take place in the leaf?
A. The epidermis     B. The palisade mesophyll    C. The guard cells     D. The spongy mesophyll
E. None of the above

16. In a C4 plant, which enzyme first fixes CO2?
A. Rubisco     B. PEP Carboxylase     C. Carboxylic Dehydrogenase    D. Malatase     E. None of the above

17. Which of the following steps of respiration produces the most ATP?
A. Glycolysis     B. Conversion of pyruvate to Acelyl Co-A    C. Krebs Cycle     D. Oxidative Phoshorylation    E. Alcohol Fermentation

18. How do the fatty acid residues of triglycerides enter the Krebs Cycle?
A. The fatty acids are converted to glucose, go through glycolysis and enter the Krebs Cycle as Acetyl Co-A
B. The fatty acids are converted to pyruvate, which is converted to Acetyl CoA, and then enters the Krebs Cycle
C. The fatty acids are converted to Acetyl CoA which then enters the Krebs Cycle
D. The fatty acids are converted to citric acid, which enters directly into the Krebs Cycle
E. None of the above

19. Which of the following inhibits phosphofructokinase?
A. Fructose 6-phosphate     B. Glucose 6-phosphate    C. ATP     D. Pyruvate    E. Oxygen

20. Ethanol has a boiling point of 76ºC, water has a boiling point of 100ºC. If you were distilling a solution of ethanol and water, how hot would you want the mixture to be?
A. 74ºC     B. 85ºC     C. 100ºC     D. 120ºC     E. Who cares?

21. About how much energy is recovered when glucose undergoes aerobic respiration?
A. 10%     B. 20%     C. 40%     D. 80%     E. 100%

22. Which of the following occurs in your muscles?
A. Oxidative phosphorylation     B. Lactic Acid Fermentation    C. Alcohol Fermentation     D. A & B    E. A, B, & C

You got credit for "B" as well - I fooled myself when I wrote this question and bubbled in "B" on the key. However, D is the correct answer.

23. Each NADH produced in the Krebs Cycle is worth _____ ATP’s.
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. Zero

24. The first part of glycolysis ______ energy. The second part of glycolysis _____ energy
A. requires; requires B. requires; produces C. produces; requires D. produces; produces

Meiosis Matching - For questions 25 - 27, match the description on the left to the appropriate choice on the right. All questions in this section refer to MEIOSIS. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

25. Homologous chromosomes separate C

26. Crossing over occurs A

27. Tetrads line up in the center of the cell B

A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Prophase II
E. Anaphase II

28. During which stages of the cell cycle are replicated chromosomes found?
A. G1     B. S      C. G2      D. B & C      E. A, B, & C

29. The image below is an example of a 2n=4 cell in which stage of mitosis or meiosis?
A. Metaphase of Mitosis
B. Metaphase I
C. Metaphase II
D. Anaphase I
E. Anaphase II

30 Which statement about the regulation of the cell cycle is FALSE?
A. Cyclin concentration increases as the cell progresses through the G1, S, and G2 stages of the cell cycle
B. MPF is an aggregation of cyclin and cyclin-dependent kinases
C. After mitosis, the cyclin-dependent kinases are destroyed
D. The G2 checkpoint marks the time at which MPF complexes are formed
E. All fo the above statements about regulation of the cell cycle are TRUE

31. An individual has an allele for blue eyes on one homolog and an allele for brown eyes at the same locus on the other homolog. We would say this individual is ______ for this gene
A. Heterozygous     B. Homozygous      C. Homologous     D. Different      E. None of the above

32. Diploid human cells have _______ pair(s) of autosomes and ______ pair(s) of sex chromosomes
A. One; one      B. Twenty-two; one      C. One; Twenty two     D. Forty-four; two      E. Two; Forty-four

33. Topoisomerase:
A. Unwinds DNA      B. Proofreads DNA      C. Prevents supercoiling     D. Joins nicked DNA      E. None of the above

34. Which of the following statements about DNA polymerases is FALSE?
A. DNA polymerase III is the primary enzyme utilized in the synthesis of new DNA
B. DNA polymerases have proofreading abilities
C. DNA polymerase III can start de novo - it does not need an RNA primer
D. DNA polymerases synthesize new DNA in a 5' to 3' direction
E. All of the above statements about DNA polymerases are TRUE

35. The Meselson-Stahl experiment
A. Illustrated that DNA replication was semi-conservative
B. First demonstrated tranformation in bacteria
C. Determined the three-dimensional structure of DNA
D. Used radiolabeled bacteriophages to confirm that DNA was the molecule of heredity
E. None of the above

36. Which of the following statements about nucleotides is FALSE?
A. Nucleotides must be synthesized in a 5' to 3' direction
B. Nucleotides consist of a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar, and a phosphate group
C. Nucleotides are base paired A=G and C=T
D. RNA and DNA nucleotides can base pair
E. All of the above statements about nucleotides are TRUE

37. Okazaki fragments:
A. Are found on the leading strand of synthesized DNA
B. Are created in a 3' to 5' direction
C. Are separated by helicase
D. Are formed by primase
E. None of the above

Matching - For questions 38 - 39, match the scientists on the left to their contribution to science on the right. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all

38. Provided conclusive evidence that DNA was the molecule of heredity   C

39. First proposed the current model of DNA as well as speculated on a means of replication A

A. Watson and Crick
B. Meselsohn and Stahl
C. Hershey and Chase
D. Avery, McCarthey, MacLeod
E. Griffith

40. Where are telomeres found in a chromosome?
A. At the ends of the chromosome
B. At the centromere
C. Near the centromere
D. Upstream from functional genes
E. None of the above

Use the DNA presented below to answer questions 41 - 46

3' G G T A C G T G C C C* A T G C G C A T T G 5'

41. What is the DNA compliment to this piece of DNA?
A. 5' G G T A C G T G C C C A T G C G C A T T G 3'
B. 5' C C A T G C A C G G G T A C G C G T A A C 3'
C. 3' C C A T G C A C G G G T A C G C G T A A C 5'
D. 5' G G U A C G U G C C C A U G C G C A U U G 3'
E. 3' C C A U G C A C G G G U A C G C G U A A C 5'

42. If this strand of DNA was the template strand of a gene, which of the below would be the coding strand?
A. 3' G T T A C G C G T A C C C G T G C A T G G 5'
B. 3' C A A T G C G C A T G G G C A C G T A C C 5'
C. 3' C C A T G C A C G G G T A C G C G T A A C 5'
D. 3' G U U A C G C G U A C C C G U G C A U G G 5'
E. 3' C C A U G C A C G G G U A C G C G U A A C 5'

43. If the above strand of DNA was the template strand of a gene, what is the second amino acid in the coded polypeptide?
A. Glycine     B. Cysteine     C. Methionine     D. Histidine     E. Isoleucine

44. How many amino acids are in the final polypeptide?
A. Three     B. Four     C. Five     D. Six     E. Seven

45. If the C* nucleotide was changed to a G, this would cause a change in the polypeptide.
A. True     B. False

46. What is the amino acid attached to the tRNA with the following anticodon: 5' UAC 3'
A. Tyrosine     B. Histidine    C. Methionine     D. Valine     E. Glycine

47. Which of the following is NOT necessary for initiation to take place?
A. A mRNA     B. A large and a small ribosomal subunit    C. A mRNA in the P site   D. A mRNA in the A site
E. All of the above are necessary for initiation to take place

48. Which of the following is incorrectly matched to its function?
A. A site - holds the tRNA carrying the next amino acid to be added to the polypeptide
B. P site - holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide
C. E site - forms the peptide bond between the amino acid and the polypeptide chain
D. Release factor (puromycin) - causes termination
E. All of the above are correctly matched to their function

49. How many nucleotide bases are in a codon?
A. One     B. Two     C. Three     D. Four     E. Three or four

50. A coding strand of DNA and the corresponding mRNA are both complimentary to template strand.
A. True     B. False

51 If lactose is present, the repressor protein will bind to the operator and operon will be “on.”
A. True     B. False     C. Not enough information to tell

52. If glucose is present, the concentration of CRP will be ____ and RNA polymerase _____ bind well to the promoter
A. high; can     B. low; can     C. high; cannot     D. low; cannot

53. The lac operon is a/an ______ operon
A. inducible     B. Repressible     C. Not enough information to tell

54. The majority of eukaryotic genetic control is at the ________ level
A. Transcriptional     B. Post-transcriptional     C. Translational     D. Post-translational

55. The TATA box is found in:
A. TFIID     B. RNA polymerase     C. The basal promoter    D. TBP     E. None of the above

56. Which of the following is NOT a method of post-transcriptional control?
A. Addition of a 5' Guanine cap to pre-mRNA
B. Addition of a 3' poly-A tail to pre-mRNA
C. Removal of introns in a pre-mRNA
D. Binding of TFIID to the basal promoter
E. All of the above are methods of post-transcriptional control

57. Removal of the C-chain of pre-insulin creating functional insulin is an example of genetic control at the ______ level.
A. Transcriptional    B. Post-transcriptional     C. Translational     D. Post-translational

58. Where did Mike used to work when he was an undergrad and/or graduate student?
A. Pizza Hut     B. Adult Video Store     C. Boy Scout Camp     D. Dishwasher at UIUC

I have worked in all of these - everyone will get this question :)