Pathology 425 & 426 Teaching Learning Examination:
   
Lecture Topic: Neoplasia I:
Instructor: Elliot Weisenberg, Elliot.Weisenberg-MD@advocatehealth.com

Questions:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

1.

A tumor composed of embryonal cell layers is a:

 

a. adenocarcinoma
b. Carcinosarcoma
c. mixed mesodermal tumor
d. teratoma

e. papillary adenocarcinoma

 
2.

A mass composed of normal tissues native to the location but in abnormal amount or arrangement is called a (n)

 

a. hamartoma
b. teratoma
c. mixed tumor
d.
choristoma
e.
embryonal tumor

 
3.

Loss of orderly maturation of epithelium is best called:

 

a. hamartoma
b. teratoma
c. dysplasia
d.
choristoma
e.
embryonal tumor

 
4.

A lesion on an epithelial body surface characterized by nuclear hyperchromatism, disturbance of cell polarity and cellular invasion through the basement membrane is

 
 

a. papilloma
b. carcinoma
c. carcinoma-in-situ
d. hair follicle
e. hamartoma

 
5.

A histologically anaplastic tumor would be expected to behave in what way?

 

a. slow growth, late metastasis
b. benign
c. rapid growth, early metatasis
d. slow growth, no metastasis
e. stable through life of patient

 
6.

A single mitotic figure in a microscopic tissue section means that the tissue is:

 

a. neoplastic
b. poorly differentiated
c. composed of some replicating cells
d. anaplastic
e. hypertrophic

 
7.

Principal criteria by which a diagnosis of cancer is made in a primary lesion include:

 

a. rate of tumor growth
b. degree of cytologic anaplasia
c. number of mitoses
d. evidence of tumor invasion
e. all of the above

 
8.

Which of the following is NOT a malignant tumor?

 

a. hepatoma
b. lymphoma
c. melanoma
d. leiomyoma
e. medulloblastoma

 
9.

A fibroadenoma of the breast is an example of:

 

a. hyperplasia
b. metaplasia
c. neoplasia
d. dysplasia
e. anaplasia

 
10.

Malignant neoplasms may follow:

 

a. a non-lethal high dose of gamma irradiation
b. repeated benzene exposure
C. asbestos inhalation
e. actinic keratosis of the skin
f. all of the above

 
11.

Benign cystic teratoma (dermoid cysts) occur in the:

 

a. ovary
b. testes
c. mediastinum
d. sacrococcygeal area
e. all of the above

 
12.

Where chronic hemorrhage or superimposed infection are not contributing factors, the most common way in which malignancy leads to death is through:

 

a. heart failure
b. thrombosis and infarction
c. renal failure
d. cachexia
e. metastasis to the brain

 
13.

The single most important factor in predicting the probable course of a malignant neoplasm is:

 

a. number of mitotic figures per high power field
b. the size of the neoplasm when first diagnosed
c. the degree of anaplasia of the neoplasm
d. degree of clinical response to radiation or chemotherapy
e. the presence or absence of metastases at the time of diagnosis

 
14.

Workers in the aniline dye industry are most prone to which one of the following tumors?

 

a. carcinoma of the lung
b. carcinoma of the stomach
c. squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
d. basal cell carcinoma of the skin
e. carcinoma of the urinary bladder

 
15.

Which of the following viruses is most likely implicated in the causation of human malignancy?

 

a. measles virus
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. cytomegalo virus
d. rhinovirus
e. coxsackie virus

 
16.

staging of tumors helps with which of the following?

 

a. determination of prognosis
b. determination of treatment
c. determination of common language for cancer specialists
d. determination of strata in clinical trials
e. all of the above

 
17.

Most commonly staging considers the following?

 

a. tumor size
b. nodal involvement
c. presence or absence of metastatic disease
d. none of the above
e. all of the above

 
18.

Recruitment in tumor cell kinetics is best described by:

 

a. shortening the S phase
b. decrease in cell cycle time
c. decrease in size of Go compartment
d. decrease in size of N compartment
e. increase in size of Go compartment

 
19.

The single most important feature of malignancy is:

 

a. cellular pleomorphism
b. numerous mitotic figures
c. metastases
d. lymphocytic infiltration at the edges of the tumor
e. plasma cell infiltration at the edges of the tumor

 
20.

A tumor composed of columnar epithelium arranged in glandular configuration with nests of cells invading into adjacent normal tissue is best described as:

 

a. adenomatous polyp
b. adenomatous hyperplasia
c. adenomyosis
d. adenocarcinoma
e. carcinosarcoma

 
21.

An increase in tissue associated with an increase in the number of cells composing the tissue is best described as:

 

a. aplasia
b. agenesis
c. hypertrophy
d. hyperplasia
e. metaplasia

 
questions 22 through 27

Direction: Each group of lettered words or phrases is followed by a list of numbered statements. Match the numbered statement most closely associated with the lettered word or phrase. Each lettered word or phrase may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. malignant neoplasm
B. benign neoplasm
C. hyperplasia
D. aplasia
E. teratoma
F. metaplasia

 

 
22.

lipoma

23. adenoma
24. lack of production of red cell precursors in bone marrow
25. squamous epithelium lining a dilated bronchus
26. carcinosarcoma
27. liposarcoma

questions 28 through 30

Directions:Each set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of numbered words or phrases. For each numbered word or phrase select:

A. if the item is associated with A only
B. if the item is associated with B only
C. if the item is associated with A and B
D. if the item is associated with neither A nor B

A. normal cells
B. malignant cells
C. both
D. neither

 

 
28.

Exhibit the phenomenon of contact inhibition in vitro

29. More likely to show diploid karyotypic characteristics
30. More likely to show variable aneuploid

Questions 31 and 32 only

Directions: For each of the following statements ONE or MORE answers are correct.

Answer:

A. if only 1, 2, and 3 are correct
B. if only 2 and 3 are correct
C. if only 2 and 4 are correct
D. if only 4 is correct
E. if some other combinations is correct

 
.

 
31.

The synthesis of DNA occurs during only a portion of the cell cycle i.e the S phase. In the presence of adequate amounts of nutrients and growth factors, the control of DNA synthesis is:

 

1. programmed during G1
2. an all or none event which follows the G1 phase
3. associated with the synthesis of histones and other cellular proteins
4. determined by the rate of transport of glucose across the cell surface membrane and the intracellular level of deoxyribonucleoides

 
32.

The length of the cell cycle is determined mainly by the length of:

 

A. the S phase
B. G1
C. The G2 phase
D. the M phase

 
33.

In the presence of adequate nutrients and growth factors, the length of the S phase is believed to be determined by:

 

A. the rate of DNA synthesis along the replication fork
B. the number of replication bubbles per chromosome
C. the number of replication forks per nucleosome
D. the number of Okazaki fragments per replication fork

 

Please check back periodically, to review updated TLEs. Thanks.

Additional Materials: view small group discussion
   
 
For questions, complaints, suggestions, please contact Deb Moulton, MAMS (dmoult1@uic.edu)