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Questions PART 1:
1.	1. what is the most common causative organism for pyogenic osteomyelitis?
a) E. coli b. pneumococci c. hemolytic streptococci d. hemolytic staphylococci

2.	Involucrum is:
a) a piece of necrotic bone b. sinus formation c. subperiosteal new bone formation d. a portion of metaphysis

3.	which one of the following is not true for complications of fracture?
a) malignant b. adequate immobilization c. interposition of soft tissue in between the bony ends d. infection at fracture site .

4.	The diagnosis of osteoid osteoma depends on:
a) clinical symptoms b) radiological findings c) histological finding nidus d) all of the above e) none of the above

5.	The most common primary malignant bone tumor is:
a) osteogenic sarcoma b) chondrosarcoma c) metastatic tumors from other primaries d) synovial sarcoma

6.	The five year survival rate in osteogenic sarcoma is:
a) 40–50 b) 10-20 c) 80-90 d) 0-5

7.	Histologically osteogenic sarcoma is composed of:
a) malignant mesenchymal cells b) osteoid and cartilage components c) osteoclasts and osteoblasts d) all of the above e) none of the above

8.	Ollier’s disease is:
a) multiple osteocartilagenous exostosis b) osteosclerosis c) multiple enchondromas d) deformity in the cartilage

9.	Osteopetrosis is
a) hereditary disorder b) subperiosteal flew bone formation c) end result of osteomyelitis d) end result of osteomyelitis e) none of the above

10.	which one of the following statements is not true of Paget's disease?
a) A disease of old age. b) Asymptomatic form has been identified in 0–3% in c) Decrease in serum alkaline phosphatase d) Osteogenic sarcoma may develop as a complication

	Match the following: a. parathyroid b. tophus c. Heberden’s nodes d. vitamin D deficiency
11.	osteoarthritis
a) parathyroid b) tophus c) Heberden’s nodes d) vitamin D deficiency

12.	gout
a) parathyroid b) tophus c) Heberden’s nodes d) vitamin D deficiency

13.	osteitis fibrosa cystica
a) parathyroid b) tophus c) Heberden’s nodes d) vitamin D deficiency

14.	rickets or osteomalacia
a) parathyroid b) tophus c) Heberden’s nodes d) vitamin D deficiency


15.	Caplan’s syndrome is:
a) multiple exostosis b) enchondromas and hemangiomas c) rheumatoid nodules in lung parenchyma and pneumoconiosis d) none of the above

16.	Secondary amyloidosis is a common complication of:
a) degenerative joint disease b) rheumatoid arthritis c) gout d) osteoporosis

17.	Osteogenic sarcoma often metastasizes to:
a) regional lymph nodes b) brain c) lungs d) bones

18.	Giant cell tumor of the bone always involves the:
a) metaphysis b) epiphysis c) diaphysis d) none of the above

19.	The malignancy of giant cell tumor is determined by:
a) number of giant cells b) size of the giant cells c) bizarreness of the stromal cells d) all of the above
20.	Synovial sarcoma usually arises from the:
a) synovial lining cells b) large joints c) mesenchymal cells of the intermuscular compartment of the extremities d) metaphyseal end of long bones
21.	Differential diagnosis of pleomorphic liposarcoma includes:
a) malignant fibrous histiocytoma b) pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma c) both a. and b.
22.	Common sites for embryonal rhabdomyosarcomas are:
a) orbit b) nasopharynx c) genitourinary tract d) all of the above
23.	The prognosis of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma is:
a) excellent b) fair c) very poor d) good
24.	Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma occurs most commonly in:
a) upper extremities b) head and neck area c) lower extremities d) retroperitoneum
25.	Leiomyosarcomas occurs mostly in:
a) upper extremities b) head and neck area c) lower extremities d) retroperitoneum
26.	which one of the following is not true in malignant fibrous histiocytoma?
a) biphasic pattern b) glandular arrangement of the tumor Cells c) presence of chronic inflammatory cells d) presence of multinucleated giant cells
27.	Osteogenesis imperfecta is:
a) autosomal dominant b) autosomal recessive c) all of the above d) none of the above
28.	Multiple osteocartilagenous exostosis has 20% chance of chondrosarcoma. The above statement is:
a) true b) false
29.	All of the following are true in osteopetrosis except:
a) hereditary disorder b) hepatosplenomegaly c) generalized lymphadenopathy d) blindness
30.	Differential diagnosis of Wing's tumor
a) large cell lymphoma b) neuroblastoma c) undifferentiated carcinoma d) all of the above
31.	The characteristic of fibrous dysplasia is:
a) fibroblastic proliferation with woven bone formation b) osteoid with osteoblastic lining c) areas of chondroid and osseous elements d) often develop fibrosarcoma
32.	non-ossifying fibroma often becomes malignant. This statement is:
a) true b) false
33.	The most common site of tuberculous arthritis is:
a) hip b) knee c) spine d) shoulder
34.	Ganglion cyst is a:
a) degenerative change in the nerve ganglion b) degenerative cyst of articular cartilage c) cyst lined by tall columnar epithelium d) mucoid degeneration and cystic softening of connective tissue of a joint capsule or tendon sheath
35.	Pigmented villonodular synovitis is characterized by:
a) increased number of neutrophils and hemosiderin pigment b) increased number of neutrophils and nodular arteritis c) increased villous overgrowth of synovium and hemosiderin pigment d) none of the above
36.	Liposarcomas usually arise from benign lipoma. This statement is:
a) true b) false
37.	which one of the following is not true for liposarcoma?
a) All liposarcomas are radio–resistant b) All liposarcomas are radio–sensitive c) Most common soft tissue sarcomas of the adults d) Usually arise in the deep structures
38	Leiomyomas are commonly seen in the:
a) liver b) GI tract c) lung d) uterus
39.	Botryoid sarcoma arises from:
a) skeletal muscle b) smooth muscle c) fatty tissue d) cartilagenous
40.	Aibright’s syndrome is:
a) monostotic fibrous dysplasia with skin. pigmentation b) polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with skin pigmentation and precocious puberty c) polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with skin pigmentation and blindness d) all of the above
41.	"Mosaic" pattern of bone is characteristic of:
a) fibrous dysplasia b) osteitis fibrosa cystica c) osteapetrosis d) osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease)
42.	The so-called ‘brown tumor" of the jaw is the same as:
a) Ewing’s sarcoma b) angiosarcoma c) hemorrhage and fibrosis in the bone in hyperparathyroidism d) hemorrhagic necrosis

Please check back periodically, to review updated TLEs. Thanks.

Please direct questions, comments, suggestions to Deb Moulton (dmoult1@uic.edu)